Pretty much what the title says. I know he’s a former president and has all of his supporters, but what’s the official reason? Thanks.
Pretty much what the title says. I know he’s a former president and has all of his supporters, but what’s the official reason? Thanks.
Well the legal system doesn’t exist on paper. Laws are not what the legal system operates on. Allegedly, breaking a law is what allows, but doesn’t require, the legal system to be involved at all.
So to answer your question, Sam Bankman is a nobody, that no one likes, and caused a very public number of people to lose a lot of money. His case is a slam-dunk, and has no further implications. Trump is a former president who did exactly the same shit that every other former president has done since Washington. So prosecuting him for his crimes now means that the power brokers of the US empire are now potentially open to prosecution. So of course the two aren’t going to be comparable.
So there is no “official reason” because officially the judicial system is based on individual discretion.
I was with you until
“Trump is a former president who did exactly the same shit that every other former president has done since Washington.”
Every president since Washington has misused campaign funds to pay for silence on an affair, stolen top secret documents, conducted business fraudulently, and plotted multiple attempts to subvert an election?
I must be missing something. If you take that line out I agree with the rest of your comment.
Your answer doesn’t pass my smell test. Yes they can choose NOT to prosecute because, for instance, presidents are too important, but they DID prosecute and they have to say what law was broken and there are sentencing guidelines. If Trump and Fried were both convicted of murder, I’m pretty sure Trump would not just be fined while Fried was jailed. I don’t pretend that Trump will ever face serious consequences but I kind of think there IS a legal reasoning behind the differences in the two cases.