• baseless_discourse@mander.xyzEnglish
    2·
    6 months ago

    On the contrary - to be countabley infinite is generally assumed to mean there exists a 1-1 correspondence with N.

    Isn’t this what I just said? If I am not mistaken, this is exactly what “unique up-to bijection” means.

    Anyways, I mean either starting from 1 or 0, they can be used to count in the exactly same way.

    • HexesofVexes@lemmy.worldEnglish
      2·
      6 months ago

      I’m arguing from the standpoint that we establish the idea of counting using the naturals - it’s countable if it maps to the naturals, thus the link. Apologies for the lack of clarity.